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Is it possible to know ip address of the remote machine if I know its MAC address?
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Only if the remote machine is on the same subnet as the machine trying to resolve the MAC. The MAC is a physical address that only has meening on the subnet it's connected to. The MAC address you get is either to the switch your machine is connected to or the near side of the 1st router you come to on the following back from whence the packet came.
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Dave Kreskowiak wrote: Only if the remote machine is on the same subnet as the machine trying to resolve the MAC
How can we do that (get IP by knowing the MAC address)?
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ARP Command[^]
<edit> Sorry, wrong direction, you want GetMAC[^]</edit>
"When did ignorance become a point of view" - Dilbert
modified on Tuesday, August 10, 2010 2:08 PM
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getmac is used when we know an IP and need to know MAC address. But in this case, I need to know an IP if I have the mac address. Any idea?
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If you want to go the other way around, it's the ARP command. But, like I said, you can only get the IP's for a MAC on the subnet that your ran the command on. If you're trying to use this to uniquely identify machines on all networks in your company, you can't do that. The MAC you see will be the near-side of the last router closest to your server that you're running the command on.
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Dave Kreskowiak wrote: But, like I said, you can only get the IP's for a MAC on the subnet that your ran the command on
At my office, we run only one subnet. But after I check the article from this page[^] I found that it is not possible to do that. ARP just show the map of IP and MAC from its cache. Thank for your help so far.
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Yeah, that's all anything is going to do. There isn't any device that maintains a complete table of MAC addresses and IP's on the entire network. Why? IP's describe the logical layout of the network. MAC addresses are part of the physical layout. There is not a one-to-one correlation between these two views of the network. It is entirely possible to have the same MAC (two different devices) on two different subnets, having two different IPs, and the network will still work perfectly.
And...the second you say "Well, this network is never going to have another subnet" is the second your application falls on its face and you're scrambling to come up with an entirely different solution to your identity problem.
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Must have been drunk that day. My first answer was the correct one, as Dave has already pointed out.
"When did ignorance become a point of view" - Dilbert
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my remote desktop on window server 2008 it is on hange stage
and my local desktop is Windows 7 .
how can i restart my remote server from my local computer
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Goto "Administrative Tools" - "Terminal Services Manager"
Select your server in the leftside console tree.
In the right side panel, rightclick the offending connection and select "Reset".
<edit> I believe I misread your question. If your server is on the same subnet as your workstation or you're working via VPN having the netbios ports open, the solution from Richi_Zenta should work fine </edit>
"When did ignorance become a point of view" - Dilbert
modified on Monday, August 2, 2010 8:39 AM
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You can run shutdown -i which will open a GUI windows that will allow you to restart remote server. This command is in XP, not sure about Windows 7
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Hello,
I have a windows server 2003 with IIS5 that it contain a intranet application and i want to add an another intranet application to Update it,
Is there a solution and what is it?
thank's
aef
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Windows 2003 has IIS6 and not IIS5. IIS 5 was in Windows 2000.
If you want to add a site in IIS with same port and IP that existing have, do the following
1) Add the site name in your IIS server's host file. (c:\WINDOWS\system32\drivers\etc\hosts). Mentione the local IP address and the site name next to it.
2) In IIS, start new website wizard. On the screen for IP address and port, mentione the site address that was entered in host file.
3) Complete the wizard and you can run multiple websites with same IP and Ports on same IIS server
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Is there any possible way to apply group policy on firefox that installed on Windows?
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One of my user join domain and he assign by default in a user group. One application when he try to open it, it do not display anything. Whether he try to open many time but nothing happend. But when he try to shutdown or log off the computer, this application appear a little bit but he still can't use it because of the process of logoff or shutdown is begin.
What is the cause of this problem? and how to solve it?
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I have download office 2010 professional trail. When I try to install on windows xp sp3, the installation fail during the extraction phase. The message appear The installation fail during extract.
Does anyone have any idea about the cause of this problem? Are there any solution?
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Yeah, it sounds like you have to re-download the install because it's corrupted.
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But I download it with the download manager. If it corrupt this mean the file on the server is corrupt so I do not need to re-download.
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panda-kh wrote: But I download it with the download manager.
So what... Download managers do not guarantee a 100% good download.
panda-kh wrote: If it corrupt this mean the file on the server is corrupt
No it doesn't. It worked perfectly for me.
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Every 32-bit process can allocate up to 4GB of virtual memory, where some goes to kernel-mode and some to user-mode.
I currently have 60 processes running on my computer. Lets say they all want to consume 4GB of memory, will I have almost 240GB of memory allocated from my HD for all the processes?
What if I don't have 240GB available, but only 200? will some processes won't recieve their promised 4GB? What will become of them once they won't recieve the memory they need because there isn't enough available?
Now lets say I have 240GB available, will each process access its virtual memory as fast as accessing its RAM, as it is supposed to be?
I find it very hard to believe that hunderds of GB are expected to be available for allocating virtual memory on every one's HD, and I find it even harder to believe that accessing that virtual memory will be as fast access as accessing RAM.
Any enlightment regarding this issue will be most welcome, as I am well confused at the moment.
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Hey guys,
I programmed a tool which sends a WOL packet to boot a Client.
3 devices:
1. laptop (at home)
2. Server
3. Desktop PC
I connect with the laptop to the network with vpn. So I can reach the server, but not the desktop.
I have to turn on the desktop pc to run a remote software from laptop to reach the client.
But now the problem:
I can not boot desktop pc from laptop! So I have the application on a server which both can reach.
There are 2 .exe
1. starter.exe (start the WOL.exe on server)
2. WOL.exe (send WOL message to desktop pc)
How can I start the WOL.exe local on the server? (If I run it with the starter.exe it would run local on the Laptop)
greets,
Mschauder
modified on Thursday, July 15, 2010 12:54 AM
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The simplest answer would be to send some message to the server that includes the parameter information. The server will recognise the message and construct a WOL packet which it then sends to the requisite IP address. Or did I misunderstand your question?
It's time for a new signature.
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you don't! but how can I do this? 
Is it possible to start the .exe local on the server? Cause Client A send his information to the server, the server start my program now... but local on the machine from Client A...
Client A can not reach Client B directly.
If I can start the .exe on the server I have no problems 
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