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How to provide the password protection in SQL Server 2000
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You would normally do this in your calling code. While there is a password function in SQL Server, it is quite a weak implementation.
In the code that was responsible for managing the user details, you would typically want to encrypt the password and a salt string. If you store the salt in the database, it is a simple matter to compare the user entered password + the salt with the encrypted password stored in the database and compare them to see if they match.
Deja View - the feeling that you've seen this post before.
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sir
i want to protect my sqlserver database with password.so that no any one can modify my table containt.
as i used database in my asp.net program.
i want to change it only through program not directly database.
is it possible.
then reply me.
ajeet
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I am trying to update a MS ACCESS table that has a column defined as a datetime type. The update looks like:
string updateSQL = "update Perform " +
" set venueCd = ?, " + " performanceDTTM = ?, " +
" performanceDesc = ?, " +
"lotteryPerformance = ?, " +
" lotteryAsgnComplete = ?, " +
" performHandicapLogic = ?, " +
" maxNumOfCompTks = ?, " +
" maxNumOfAdditionalTks = ?, " +
" costOfEachAddTk = ? " +
" where venueCd = ? and " +
" performanceDTTM = ?";
I am using a OleDbType.Date parm to pass in the value of the date time. The value is correct in the parameter and there is a row that it should find and update. Any help would be appreciated.
Thanks,
Patrick
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Even down to the millisecond? (Just a thought - I've been caught out with that in the past)
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that is a good question. I can view the data in ms access and it does not display sectonds or milliseconds. The value I am passing in is actually read from the row that I am trying to update from a prior select.
Colin, is there anything special I should do since I am working with dates with MS Access?
Patrick
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 I changed the where to:
DateValue(performanceDTTM) = DateValue(@oldPerformanceDTTM)
I used the DateValue function. I really do not understand why I had to use it since both the column and the parm were datetime data types.
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I'm making tables at runtime, and adding them to the SQL DB on disk, which is working. Along the way, I'm also making the select string, which from past tries, I know works. When I try to make the command builder, it doesn't build the other SQL commands I need. Any Help on how to use this. I know it should be building the commands the first time Update is called, but it isn't doing so. I had this working once, added some columns to the table, and now it doesn't work. Trouble is, I don't have a backup of the code that worked.
A soft glow comes from the pit in the darkness.
The clicking noise become faster - and louder.
A wind begins to stir up from the pit, as the
creature flexes it's wings, preparing for flight.
You stare into the pit, and hear a voice say
in your mind, "If you survive the encounter,
declare it to the world."
The Code Demon Rises.
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Hi,
Could someone please help me in this simple task.
I have two tables below. I need to set checked="ok" for those products that have no entry in [expiration date] table. Thanks in advance.
I imagine this would be something like this, but it's incorrect:
UPDATE (product as p<br />
INNER JOIN [expiration date] AS ed ON p.id=ed.product_id)<br />
SET checked='ok' WHERE (COUNT(*) FROM [expiration date] = 0)<br />
<br />
product<br />
-------<br />
id<br />
name<br />
checked<br />
<br />
expiration date<br />
---------------<br />
product_id<br />
exp_date<br />
quantity<br />
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Hope this helps U.
Test this with some fake table before U proceed.
update product set
ckecked='ok' where id not in (select product_id from expirationdate)
Regards,
Arun Kumar.A
-- modified at 10:43 Sunday 22nd April, 2007
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Try this:
update p set checked='ok'
from product p
where id in
( select id
from product p2
join expirationdate e on p2.id = e.product_id
group by id
having count(*) = 0)
I guess the question would be if there are records or not, it might be easier to do a left join if there are no records.
So that would be:
update p set checked='ok'
from product p
where id in
( select id
from product p2
left join expirationdate e on p2.id = e.product_id
where e.product_id is null)
Hope that helps.
Ben
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Hello,
I'm using access 2007 as the database for a crystal reports project in vs.net 2005. When i try to preview or view the report, i get the error:
"Failed to open rowset"
Details: ADO Error Code:0x
Source: Microsoft Jet Database Engine
Description: Syntax error in JOIN Operation
SQL State: 3000
Native Error.
I tried to analyze the SQL Query...but i dunt understand wat hte problem is:
SELECT `tblDesc`.`North`, `tblDesc`.`South`, `tblDesc`.`East`, `tblDesc`.`West`, `tblDoc`.`Loan_Applicant`, `tblDoc`.`SubType`, `tblDoc`.`Plot_No`, `tblDoc`.`BR_Count`, `tblDoc`.`Family`, `tblDoc`.`Maid`, `tblDoc`.`Study`, `tblDoc`.`Plot_Area`, `tblDoc`.`Zoned`, `tblDoc`.`Tenure`, `tblDoc`.`BUA`, `tblDoc`.`Original_Price`, `tblDoc`.`Reg_Date`, `tblIntro`.`VRN`, `tblIntro`.`RRN`, `tblIntro`.`R_Date`, `tblIntro`.`I_Date`, `tblTitles`.`Title`, `tblValuation`.`Market_Value`, `tblValuation`.`MV_Words`, `tblValuation`.`Replacement_Value`, `tblValuation`.`RV_Words`, `tblValuation`.`Forced_Sale_Value`, `tblValuation`.`FSV_Words`, `tblValuation`.`Valuation_Date`, `tblValuator`.`Name`, `tblPropertyType`.`Property_Type`, `tblReports`.`ReportID`, `tblDesc`.`Topography`, `tblDesc`.`Location`, `tblDesc`.`Access`, `tblDoc`.`Address`, `tblExtra`.`Quality`, `tblExtra`.`Occupancy`, `tblExtra`.`Services`, `tblExtra`.`Comments`
FROM ((`ReportDB`.`dbo`.`tblIntro` `tblIntro` INNER JOIN `ReportDB`.`dbo`.`tblValuator` `tblValuator` ON `tblIntro`.`ValuatorID`=`tblValuator`.`ValuatorID`) INNER JOIN (((`ReportDB`.`dbo`.`tblReports` `tblReports` INNER JOIN `ReportDB`.`dbo`.`tblValuation` `tblValuation` ON `tblReports`.`ValuationID`=`tblValuation`.`ValuationID`) INNER JOIN `ReportDB`.`dbo`.`tblExtra` `tblExtra` ON `tblReports`.`ExtraID`=`tblExtra`.`ExtraID`) INNER JOIN ((`ReportDB`.`dbo`.`tblDoc` `tblDoc` INNER JOIN `ReportDB`.`dbo`.`tblPropertyType` `tblPropertyType` ON `tblDoc`.`PropertyID`=`tblPropertyType`.`PropertyID`) INNER JOIN `ReportDB`.`dbo`.`tblTitles` `tblTitles` ON `tblDoc`.`TitleID`=`tblTitles`.`TitleID`) ON `tblReports`.`DocID`=`tblDoc`.`DocID`) ON `tblIntro`.`IntroID`=`tblReports`.`IntroID`) INNER JOIN `ReportDB`.`dbo`.`tblDesc` `tblDesc` ON `tblReports`.`DescID`=`tblDesc`.`DescID`
WHERE `tblReports`.`ReportID`=1
any help will be greatly appreciated...
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for ex. after INNER JOIN `ReportDB`.`dbo`.`tblReports` `tblReports`, again another INNER JOIN is starting.
Hope this is the problem
inner join usage is
INNER JOIN ON <condition>
where as in some of the inner joins of your query the "ON <condition>" is missing after <tablename>
Regards
KP
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I don't normally do much data access work, so I've never got the better of this little demon. I'm getting an exception trying to cast a field (TaxRate) to a double, because it's an integer value. However, it is declared as 'float' in the DB, but just because the value for all records at this time is the integer 14, I can't cast it to a float. How daft is that?
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Not sure about your question.Can you try Convert class?
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Visual Basic 2005
I used DataSet Designer to add a column called "Case#" to an existing SQL table.
The table is used by a DataGridView in a VB 2005 program.
I got it working on my development computer in debug mode.
Then, when I installed it, I got an exception "Case# is an invalid column" and none of my data records appeared.
Adding the following statement did not help:
PatientDataSet.Patient.Columns.Add("Case#")
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I don't know anyway that you could add a column to a sql table just by adding it to your dataset designer. YOu need to have rights on your sql server to alter the table you want to add the column to. Then you would need to use a sql query to add the column. Assuming Case# is an integer your query statement might look like this:
ALTER TABLE yourtablenamehere ADD Case# int NULL
NOTE I can't remember if # is allowed in a column name or not. I guess running that query would tell you that.
Hope that helps.
Ben
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I know the pound is allowed if you're naming your columns within SQL2005. Not sure if you're doing so through VB.NET.
Learning is not a spectator sport. - D. Blocher
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I have a number of users running this application in remote locations.
Of course, they cannot lose their existing data.
It was requested that I include a column called "CaseNbr" in the table.
The file that I need to add the column to is an SQL table that is being updated via a DataGridView.
I think that it was a mistake to add the column via DataSet Designer, so, I restored my project from a backup eliminating that step.
So, now the column does not exist in the database and I am back to square one.
I would like to add the column to the SQL tables via my app so that my various users can have it added to their databases. Every user has his own database.
There is only one program that accesses the table and it is very simple.
The user selects (or adds) a row (Patient record) then the program simply passes that Patient's info to the main form of the application.
I know nothing about SQL. There are no SQL statements in my app. Everything is done by TableAdapter and BindingSource statements like:
Me.PatientTableAdapter.Fill(Me.PatientDataSet.Patient)
PatientBindingSource.Position = Form1.DefaultPatient
That's why I don't know how to add a column to the SQL table.
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I added the following statement to my program:
Me.PatientDataSet.Patient.Columns.Add("CaseNbr", Type.GetType("System.String"))
But it did not do anything.
I added the statement as the first command in the Form Load routine:
Public Class Patient
Public Sub Patient_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load
Me.PatientDataSet.Patient.Columns.Add("CaseNbr", Type.GetType("System.String"))
Me.PatientTableAdapter.Fill(Me.PatientDataSet.Patient)
PatientBindingSource.Position = Form1.DefaultPatient
End Sub
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Hi everyone!.
I have 2 columns in a table say col1 and col2.
Sample Data:
===========
col1 col2
60 1000
20 0
30 0
40 1500
20 0
70 0
80 0
I need a query that will display the following output:
col1 col2 col3
===================
60 1000 1000
20 0 980
30 0 950
40 1500 1500
20 0 1480
70 0 1410
80 0 1330
Description:
============
if col2 not equal to ZERO then
col3=col2.
else
col3=previous col3 - current col1
I don't need cursors.
Thanks in advance.
Regards,
Arun Kumar.A
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Arun.Immanuel wrote: I don't need cursors.
You mean you don't "want" cursors. "Need" and "want" are different concepts.
The only way I can see to do this without cursors is in the client side code. i.e. in the application that calls the SQL.
Now, two importance concepts about databases here:
1. The data is essentially unordered. The implementation of the database may appear to give the data an order, but that is just incidental. You should not rely on that order. If you want guaranteed order then you have to define something in the table that you can ORDER BY
2. When retrieving data, an individual row has no concept of the rows around it - or even if there are any rows around it - so it will not be able to subtract anything from a column on the "previous" row. (There is no order, remember, so the concept of "previous" or "next" does not apply)
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Thank U very much.
I have done that with the .NET code.
I just want to know , if there exists any query.
Regards,
Arun Kumar.A
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Hi,
Thank U very much for Ur reply.
Sorry for not explaining the entire scenario.
I know that the rows in SQL are not stored in order.
But, this is what I am doing:
I am querying the above 2 columns using "ORDER BY Date".
Here "Date" is another column based on which I am retrieving the records.
So, the output will definitely be in order.
Thus we can refer the value of row(n) from row(n+1) since I am having
the column Date with all the dates(i.e.no date missing).
And the query would be:
select A.col1,A.col2,B.col2
from tblName A,
( select Date-1 "Dte",col2 from tblName )B
where A.Date=B.Dte
Here B.col2 will be shifted 1 level with respect to A.col1.
I have not included the order by clause here.
So, I will be able to refer previous row from the current row.
But, I do not know how to implement the required output as mentioned above.
Any help would be appreciated.
Regards,
Arun Kumar.A
-- modified at 6:41 Sunday 22nd April, 2007
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Have you been successful yet? I'd like to see your solution if you have.
I toyed with this for a couple of minutes, but quickly realized that your algorithm can best be stated in pseudo-code like this:
<code>getCol3( rownum )
{
if( 0 = col2(rownum) ) Then
return getCol3(rownum-1) - col1(rownum);
else
return col2(rownum);
}</code>
which is a *recursive* procedure. Some DBMs support recursive queries (Oracle and DB2 for instance), but I'm not sure even they would work here as they tend to recurse on *existing* field values, not on generated values like you want here. Check out the CONNECT BY clause if you're interested.
I'm inclined to think Colin is correct here; I SERIOUSLY doubt this can be done without procedures. I have similar requirements in my tables, but have resigned myself to putting the table updates into loops within code.
Let us know if you do figure out a clever way.
Good luck.
David
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