|
Nah, doesnt sit right with me. "For those whom code"? Sounds like sh*t man.
|
|
|
|
|
Because "For those who spend entirely too many hours squinting at computer screens while doing back-flips to meet untenable demands" was too long.
if (Object.DividedByZero == true) { Universe.Implode(); }
Meus ratio ex fortis machina. Simplicitatis de formae ac munus. -Foothill, 2016
|
|
|
|
|
As the sentence indicates that this relates to the subject of the verb, "for those who code" is correct. Try rearranging this to "they code" which sounds about right, as opposed to "them codes" which is what the implied plural form would suggest would be the replacement sentence, and just sounds plain wrong.
This space for rent
|
|
|
|
|
Who - should be used to refer to the subject of a sentence.
Whom - should be used to refer to the object of a verb or preposition.
|
|
|
|
|
who code whom -- in a causal world
whom code who -- in a acausal world
|
|
|
|
|
|
Mladen Janković wrote: But for whom the bell tolls?
Yes[^].
/ravi
|
|
|
|
|
Or spy vs. spie, in this case.
|
|
|
|
|
No, it should "who", as it has always been.
|
|
|
|
|
If you can answer who/whom question with "he" then it's "who", if you can answer it with "him" then it's Whom":
Who wrote the code? He wrote the code.
By whom was the code written? It was written by him.
“That which can be asserted without evidence, can be dismissed without evidence.”
― Christopher Hitchens
|
|
|
|
|
But it's a statement. The only quiestion I can get out of it is:
Who codes?
A1: he codes
A2: him
So you're saying that the question dictates the answer not the other way around? Ah I see. Ok. I'm fine with it now 😉
|
|
|
|
|
Andy Lanng wrote: So you're saying that the question dictates the answer not the other way around?
It's more a case of the question helping to arrive at the answer, although both are dependent on each other and in that sense interchangeable - having said that, it looks like you have understood that 
“That which can be asserted without evidence, can be dismissed without evidence.”
― Christopher Hitchens
|
|
|
|
|
who, unless specified.
E.g.
Though shall not use who when referring to a person or persons, though shall use whom instead.
|
|
|
|
|
You mean "Thou"? 
|
|
|
|
|
Keeping with the subject :-P
|
|
|
|
|
Yep, a slight path alteration, but not recursive.
|
|
|
|
|
"Whom" is the object of a prepositional phrase, an indirect object, or a direct object.
English only makes sense once you learn a different language. (less sense in most cases!)
Here is how I verify... Translate to Spanish.
If it is only "quien" (missing accent), then it is "who".
If it is "de quien" (missing accent), then it is "whom". literally: "of whom, from whom, to whom"
|
|
|
|
|
Nope, the grammar is correct! (for those who [write] code). You would not say "for those whom write code".
If you think hiring a professional is expensive, wait until you hire an amateur! - Red Adair
|
|
|
|
|
Not unless you were a stuffy know-it-all!
|
|
|
|
|
LOL! Funny the stuff we get into arguments about in these threads, eh? 
If you think hiring a professional is expensive, wait until you hire an amateur! - Red Adair
|
|
|
|
|
Actually, I think most of us need a chuckle and the more preposterous something is, the better.
|
|
|
|
|
AFAIK, the only way to correctly determine when to who vs. whom, is to use grammar rules that don't really exist in the English language (unless you're a linguist). Native German speakers get this right by intuition, because German does have those rules. It boils down to whether the pronoun refers to the accusative object ('who'), or the dative object ('whom'). Here's a really bad analogy for us geeky types: Using the C++ or C# member access operators, . is 'who', and -> is 'whom'. A better example would be the sentence "Who did what to whom?". Commence flame wars re: ...but isn't "Who" in that example actually the subject (in the grammatical sense)?
Eagles my fly, but weasels don't get sucked into jet engines.
|
|
|
|
|
qmartens wrote: better example would be the sentence "Who did what to whom?"
I like that as it fits in with my "he did that to him" rule.
“That which can be asserted without evidence, can be dismissed without evidence.”
― Christopher Hitchens
|
|
|
|
|
I believe it's correct because it's a part of a noun phrase. "Those who code" is the object of the sentence but "who" isn't the object of the phrase.
|
|
|
|
|
It's right here, "Who code" is a compound noun in itself. The people who code. "Whom" would be right in "For whom? Well, for those who code!"
|
|
|
|
General 
News 
Suggestion 
Question 
Bug 
Answer 
Joke 
Praise 
Rant 
Admin 
Submit an article or tip
