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Sure, .NET 2002 simply doesn't include the SDK automatically. .NET 2003 does. Just download the SDK from Microsoft.
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Is there a way of accessing a wellknown, singleton, remote object from the application that created the service?
I'm designing a system where a PC (host) has a hardware resource whose interface is to be shared on the LAN. In other words, client applications will be able to configure and access the hardware resource through the server application on the host PC. I also need to be able to access the hardware resource from the host PC. Since I want to maintain uniform access to this hardware resource, I want the server to access the same remote object as the clients. I have't been able to do that from the application that registers the service (wellknown, singleton). If there's no way to do that, is there another way to do this using remoting. If not, I could always revert back to using tcp communications but remoting sounds so sophisticated that I don't want to give up on it, yet.
Preemptively, thank you for you help.
Greg
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I wanna use the TcpChannel class, but the VS.NET IDE tell me that the System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.Tcp namespace isn't exist.
Why?
MY IDE: .NET 2002, Framework 1.0
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hi,
how a directoryentry-constructor hast to look like, if
the distinguished name (ldap-string) contains reserved characters.
i.g:
Dim deEntry as New DirectoryEntry("LDAP://CN=Thilo1\, Test,OU=users,DC=microsoft,dc=com")
i got an exception if the bindung string contains a reserved character (",").
what's the correct syntax?
thanks for your help an regards,
thilo.
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After creating a merge module using VS.Net 2003 and adding it to a setup, again created with VS.NET 2003, i got this error when running the setup."InstallUtilLib.dll: Unknown error in CorBindToRuntimeHost" on a Windows 2000 adv server machine with both frameworks 1.0 and 1.1 installed.
My project uses the installer classes to perform various CAs during install
(i.e. install a service)
Anybody have an idea whats wrong?
I've linked to a demo solution[^] which demonstrates the exact problem.
Is this a bug in Visual Studio 2003?
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Hello all,
I am programming a application in Managed C++ that simules a client of a web commerce site.
Some of pages of this site are SSL secures, and I don´t know what I have to do until to call HttpWebRequest. Have I to configured something on the computer or simply I have to programming something else?
I saw example of "How to do Synchronous and Asynchronous web downloads"
By Nishant S, but it doesn´t work with https, also.
I am very lost . any idea? any example code?
Thanks,
Cris
Sorry and Excuse my poor English writting!!!
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From what I've read in books on .NET 1.0, ByRef passes the argument twice: creating the local copy in the called function and then passing it back to the caller.
Then I saw some unsubstantiated comments about this behaviour being adjusted in 1.1, is this true, can anyone confirm?
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I'm guessing that ByRef is the VB.NET equivalent to the C# ref keyword. If this is true, then:
Okay. First - Nothing gets copied. What happens is that a pointer to the object is passed in to the method. The method can then manipulate the object (through the reference/pointer). This means that when the method returns the caller's object that was passed into the method is now changed.
Sorry, but my example is in C#
static void Main()
{
Int32 i = 10;
Console.WriteLine(i);
Method(ref i);
Console.WriteLine(i);
}
static void Method(ref j)
{
j += 10;
}
The output would be:
10
20
If the parameter was passed normally (with out the ref ) the result would be:
10
10
I hope this help.
If you want a good book that covers this then I recommend "Applied Microsoft .NET Framework Programming" by Jeffrey Richter.
Regards,
Colin.
--Colin Mackay--
"In the confrontation between the stream and the rock, the stream always wins - not through strength but perseverance." (H. Jackson Brown)
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Okay. First - Nothing gets copied. What happens is that a pointer to the object is passed in to the method.
Yes, I understand how it works, (how it's supposed to work!) but the actual process, as explained in "VB.NET professional" by wrox publishing, involves a double copy for whatever reason MS decided to do it this way (in 1.0 at least)
Now, this is transparent to the VB user, except takes twice as long as passing ByVal. I do not know what happens in other languages.
So, my question is, whether the VB.NET behaviour with 1.1 is more like you (and I) would expect, or is it still really just creating ridiculous inefficiency?
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I find this hard to believe, this contradicts everything I have read.
are you talking about value or reference types?
"When the only tool you have is a hammer, a sore thumb you will have."
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For all types, my source is Professional VB.NET, 2nd Edition[^] by wrox, page 99 I believe... They say it's accurate on framework 1.0, like I mentioned.
This contradicts everything I believe, too. In fact, this behaviour contradicts the words "by reference" themselves, and if true, is very disempowering for VB(or .NET)
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We have two HP printers that support paper types, as opposed to paper trays. We use this in our Access client to specify that a document is for a specific paper type, e.g. Preprinted. If the printer has that it in a tray it uses it, otherwise it prompts for someone to provide the type.
Looking at .NET printing only the concept of paper trays seems to be exposed, but when you have six different paper types and three trays this becomes a problem! Is there a way to do this in .NET or a 3rd party printing library that supports paper trays?
Howard
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Presumably this is done via the API EnumForms and uses the dmFormName element of the printer device mode (DEVMODE) structure to select this?
You could wrap these API calls in VB.Net to achieve what you want...
'--8<------------------------
Printer Monitoring in .NET? see - Merrion Computing Ltd for details
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At MSDN there's plenty to read about .NET Framework naming conventions. But I cannot find how to name your forms in WinApps? Do I use a prefix 'frm' or 'Frm' or should I not use prefixes? If we place controls on a form, we do use prefixes like 'lbl' and 'txt' for labels and textboxes.
grtz,
Octavie
----------------------------------------------
Why create waste if we throw it away, anyway?
----------------------------------------------
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A form is a class, right? So you use the class naming guidelines.
In this case, here is the relevant paragraph IMO:
Where appropriate, use a compound word to name a derived class. The second part of the derived class's name should be the name of the base class. For example, ApplicationException is an appropriate name for a class derived from a class named Exception, because ApplicationException is a kind of Exception. Use reasonable judgment in applying this rule. For example, Button is an appropriate name for a class derived from Control. Although a button is a kind of control, making Control a part of the class name would lengthen the name unnecessarily.
e.g. You have a Form showing customer records, I would name it CustomersForm . (Plural because it is showing a list of customers. If it was the details form then either CustomerForm or CustomerDetailsForm ).
regards,
Paul Watson
Bluegrass
South Africa
Brian Welsch wrote:
"blah blah blah, maybe a potato?" while translating my Afrikaans.
Crikey! ain't life grand?
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Hi
I have a question, if you have some solution, please answer.
I develop a system using .NetFramework.
This have a function connect multi datasource.
So I develop the following way, a connection per object.
This obeject have connenction information and ...
If I would like to connect database, I would use it,
But .Net Framework don't support parallel transaction.
I think about the other solution.
thank you in advance for your help
best regards,
yu-yu
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I understand that if I set "Cursor.Current= Cursors.WaitCursor ;" then somewhere I call "Application.DoEvents()", my hourglass cursor will disappear.
Why the he$$ does .NET insist on doing this? I want the hourglass there so the user knows the app is busy *AND* I want the form to be repainted (to show the progress bar) so I both set the cursor and call "DoEvents()".
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Hi all,
Not sure if this topic has been covered before but I thought I'd ask you all for help anyway.
What I'm trying to do is the following:
1. Load data from the database.
2. Transfer the data accross the network.
3. Populate an object's state from this data.
The approach I would like to try is:
1. Load the data from the database and fill a dataset with it.
2. Transfer the dataset accross the network
3. Convert the dataset into the a format that the .net serializiation architecture can recognize
4. Use (Specified formatter).Deserialize() to create my object with the state.
now.... My question is.... How can I do step 3?
I would have thought that this is a reasonable approach and if any of you know how to do this, or have any thoughts on the approach, please let me know.
Many thanks,
P
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Hi!
I am trying to modify the outgoing SOAP request from a client, by tacking on a custom HTTP header. Can anyone help me as to how I can do that? It seems that a SOAP extension may not help, since I could not find how to get at the HTTP header of the outgoing request.
Thanks!
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I am using dotNET framework 1.03 ,I want update to framework 1.1,How can i do ?
Thank you
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Download the .NET Framework v1.1 and run the setup process.
Note that v1.1 tightens security a lot, especially in ASP.NET and you will run into issues with existing ASP.NET sites.
Installing v1.1 will leave behind v1.0 (never heard of v1.03) and they will run side by side. You can use mappins in your web.config or app.config file to tell your app which version of the framework to use.
regards,
Paul Watson
Bluegrass
South Africa
Brian Welsch wrote:
"blah blah blah, maybe a potato?" while translating my Afrikaans.
Crikey! ain't life grand?
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Actually... if you want to use the 1.1 framework in the VS.NET IDE you will have to upgrade to .NET 2003. .NET 2002 will only use the 1.0x framework. .NET 2003 is keyed to use 1.1x but IT can be modified (supposedly) to use the previous version though I'm not certain why you would want to do that.
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Hi, I wonder if somebody can help me. I'm opening my program with a winform then I want this form to close with another form that opens but as soon as I close this form the program stiops running, of course! But how do I get the process to keep running!
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Your program will have a Main method for the application, this will be a static member of the form the application starts with.
From MSDN:
Typically, the main function of an application calls this method and passes to it the main window of the application.
This method adds an event handler to the mainForm parameter for the Closed event. The event handler calls ExitThread to clean up the application.
Note The Dispose method of the Form class will be called prior to the return of this method.
So... When your main form closes, so does the application.
The trick is then keeping the application running.
My suggestion is to set up an event handler to catch the Closing[^] event on the Form and set the Cancel property of the CancelEventArgs[^] passed to your handler to true. i.e. e.Cancel = true
Of course, this means that your form is still open (you cancelled the close operation) so you could make the whole thing invisible by setting visible=false on the form.
You would still have to close it properly to exit the application. (Back to your closing event handler - An if (Visible == true) {} else {} would be needed.
Alternatively - if the above is too messy: If the second form always opens after the first is closed then you could pass the appliction control to the second window. That is your Main() method would contain:
Application.Run(new FirstForm());
Application.Run(new SecondForm());
I've never tried this approach - So I don't know if it would really work - but it's worth a try. Besides, it is a lot neater than my first solution.
--Colin Mackay--
"In the confrontation between the stream and the rock, the stream always wins - not through strength but perseverance." (H. Jackson Brown)
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