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I am creating a simple remoting application which uses a strongly typed data set to retrieve data and send it to the cliet when required.
This works fine when I have everything installed on my machine. Now I am trying to deploy the sever on a machine on my network ... but i have installed .net framework 3.5 on that machine ... no sql server or visual studio .. how can i make it work ..
also, i tried to create an odbc for my sql server on the other machine .. but was unable to do that .. anyone any idea??
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vishwjeet wrote: Now I am trying to deploy the sever on a machine on my network ... but i have installed .net framework 3.5 on that machine ... no sql server or visual studio .. how can i make it work ..
Why would you need Visual Studio on a production machine?
You need to cleary explain you problem.
Manas Bhardwaj
Please remember to rate helpful or unhelpful answers, it lets us and people reading the forums know if our answers are any good.
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probem is .. im not able to connect to my sql server from the oher machine .. how should i connect to the sql server instance working on my machine i.e.(A) from the other machine i.e.(B).
I dont have sql server management studio on machine (B).
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I would like to make one point clear ..
Whenever my server is on vista machine ... nothing works ... but when i make my xp machine a server .. the same code works fine ...
so this time .. im making my server on xp machine with .net fw installed .. but my sql server is on vista machine .. so i need to access this sql server through n/w as i cannot install sql server on my xp machine
.. is my problem clear from this ..???
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Have you installed SQL server in mixed mode?
If so, then just exempt the sqlbrowser and sqlserv.exe files from your firewall. Create a new login to your sql server and also add that user to the database you want to connect.
you will get those files here :
drive:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL.XX\MSSQL\Binn\sqlservr.exe
drive:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\XX\Shared\sqlbrowser.exe
Now connect using SqlAuthentication using the userid and passwornd, and you are done. 
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Greetings, I have just developed a content-managed, database-driven application application that makes heavy use of postbacks and session variables. We own the domain that the site was designed to be hosted on, however, the customer does not want our URL showing. The solution our firm has used in the past is to just put the entire application within a frameset with the top frameset at 0% and the bottom one at 100%, thus the only file that needs to live on the customer's site is the frameset itself. In this case, the frameset is a Cold Fusion page but there is no server-side logic--just the HTML frameset. It is a cold fusion page because I'm told this is what worked in the past. They are running the .NET framework on the server but I don't know if they have any .NET sites up there. I was told that this should work because all of the code to run the application should work fine because everything should be self-contained within the frame, however, anytime a postback is done, it tends to lose all of its session variables. To further complicate matters, the same frameset, let's call it frameset.cfm works fine when both the frameset page and application are hosted on the same server, but when only the frameset.cfm page is moved to the client's server, the sessions fail, especially on pages with postbacks.
Could someone explain to me what is going on and help me come up with a workaround? Because we need to contact the customer's IT department each time a file is placed on their server, we are hoping to involve them as little as possible. My next step is going to be to create a frameset.aspx page that will live on their server but I am told that our firm has never had a problem with the frameset.cfm files before...
Ohh, and lastly, It always works in Firefox, and sometimes works in IE. On some IE 8 machines it works all the time, on some IE 8 machines it works most of the time, and on some IE8 machines it fails most of the time...
Thanks in advance
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I am in the same spot you are, only difference is the hosting site calling my frame is a PHP site. Same issues. If I host the parent site no problems. If they are the Parent site, then problems (not holding session variables).
The problem is introduced when you have cross domain sites communicating. You cannot access the parent information and the parent cannot access the child. That being said, I would think my session variables on my server would be maintained for that session.
Today, literally, I changed my response.redirect calls to server.transfer calls. Tonight I'll push the pages and begin testing. More to report tomorrow.
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Good luck with that. Sadly I did that already too. I also neglected to mention that all of the pages where this problem occurs are master pages and things seem highly dependent on the postback. The fact that it works on Firefox has me more confused and wonder how much of it is client-side vs. server side. The next step that was suggested to me is changing all of the logic that involves session variables to query strings but that will prove to be a pretty intense over-haul on a site that has already been thoroughly tested.
Let me know if you have any luck with your conversion though, let me know if it works.
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Hi All,
i need to create a gridview, while loading a page default one row should come as empty.
for that i am using footertemplate. when i add any image button to footertemplate first it was empty and then second row onlwards it was showing the controls what i added under footer template.
my requirement is i need to get all items in a first row.
the which i written was mentioned below.
Any idea regarding this help me.
<asp:gridview id="BulkECouponGrid" runat="server" showfooter="true" autogeneratecolumns="false" onrowdatabound="BulkECouponGrid_RowDataBound" onrowcommand="BulkECouponGrid_RowCommand" bordercolor="Gainsboro" cellpadding="5" headerstyle-backcolor="gray" headerstyle-font-bold="true"
alternatingrowstyle-backcolor="LightGray" width="100%" >="" <headerstyle="" backcolor="LightGray" font-bold="True" >
="" <alternatingrowstyle="" <columns>
="" <asp:templatefield="" headertext="Series Start Code" itemstyle-width="100px" footerstyle-width="100px"
="" itemstyle-horizontalalign="Center" footerstyle-horizontalalign="Center" <itemtemplate>
="" <asp:label="" ><="" asp:label>
="" <="" itemtemplate>
="" asp:templatefield>
="" <footertemplate>
="" <asp:textbox="" maxlength="4" asp:textbox>
="" footertemplate>
="" <asp:templatefield>
="" <img="" src="~/images/lock_16_w.gif" visible="false" <asp:imagebutton="" commandname="AddNew" imageurl="~/images/Save.png" <%--<footertemplate>
="" <asp:button="" text="Save" <footerstyle="" horizontalalign="Center" footerstyle>
="" <itemstyle="" itemstyle>
="" asp:templatefield>--%>
="" columns>
="" asp:gridview>
i="" did="" not="" understand="" what="" was="" the="" wrong.="" when="" i="" removed="" last="" <asp:templatefield=""> then it is creating a new row i.e first with all other controls.
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Try alternating row template with repeater and output desired HTML.
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Hi I took a DropDownList and a button, i binded the DDl to a data source.
EMP Table
Emp_Name Emp_No
John 12
Harry 13
Giri 14
The DDL displays the Emp names,
Now when i click a button i want to show a alert which shows the Emp Number of the selected index in DDL
Can you please tell me the code
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phani25485 wrote: Can you please tell me the code
NO, I wont give the code. But I will tell you what you should do.
When you bind the datatable to the DDL, assign the text property as emp name and value property as emp number.
Till now, we have done the server side part.
Lets, come to the client side(Javascript) now. Write a function which will be called on the click of the button that returns you the selected value for the drop down list.
That is it. Show it in the alert box. 
Give it a try. Write some code, and if you still stuck somewhere, comeback and someone would be happy to help you.
Manas Bhardwaj
Please remember to rate helpful or unhelpful answers, it lets us and people reading the forums know if our answers are any good.
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Actually its a cascading DDL when selecting the Dept name in the 1st DDL the second DDL displays the corresponding Emp name , upto this i have done it,
Now i want emp no based on the second DDL in a alert box upon clicking a button.
should i pass a sql command to a javascript function, if so i donno the syntax, I am new to javascript
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Hi
Try to bind the EmpNo to the ddl If u did it like below
DDl.DataTextField = "Emp_Name";
DDl.DataValueField = "Emp_No";
now get the DataValueField From JavaScript
If It Helps Click It as Answer
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in page load method put following code
ddlEmp.Attributes.Add("onchange","showAlert(this)");
then add following javascript on your page
function showAlert(ele)
{
alert(ele.value);
}
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Hi,
I am facing a problem with ultrawebgrid that I used in my asp.net page. For one of the columns, say "Status" in the grid, there is an editor control - webcombo. Whenever the user clicks this column, I dynamically populate the webcomobo using an AJAX call (using XMLHttpRequest) in the "BeforeEnterEditModeHandler" client side event. The first click seems to be working fine. The subsequent clicks are not even invoking my Ajax page. I am not even hitting that break pointer in the Ajax page method. Instead once I make the send call of the XMLHttpRequest, while debugging, it takes me directly to igtbl_fireEvent - to this line:
if (gs.GridIsLoaded && result != true && eventObj[1] >= 1 && !gs.CancelPostBack)
igtbl_needPostBack(gn);
gs.CancelPostBack = false;
Finally, it sets the CancelPostBack to false....probably, this may be causing the problem because, the grid is trying to postback. I've this grid in an asp.net UpdatePanel. Can anybody help me with this? Am I doing wrong somewhere?
Any idea is highly appreciated. I am in a crucial stage of my project and I am unable to figure out what's happening.
Thanks,
Kala
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I'm displaying a datagrid with a couple of decimal numbers. I would like to always display the first two digits after the decimal point and only display additional digits if they are present.
I've tried {0:N2} and {0:D2} results are the same - only two digits.
I've tried {0:N3} and {0:D3} results are the same - always three digits.
Any ideas? Thanks in advance!
What ever happened to just using a mask #,##0.00###?
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Hi All,
I have a ModalPopextender control on my page.
When I enter some value on the textbox i am calling one Javascript function to validate the value in the textbox with onBlur event. if the validation error rises i am showing that error on AjaxModalPopcontrol . and when i Press "ok" on that Control, i Should retain the Focus on The textBox agian.
How to Achieve this?
fttyhtrhyfytrytrysetyetytesystryrty
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yadlaprasad wrote: How to Achieve this?
Sometimes you have to step away from drop & drag and actually do something yourself. Write the script for the button click event 
only two letters away from being an asset
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try putting some javascript to change foucs on OnClientClick event of OK button
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Something must be wrong, as this is probably the most basic validation example ever - yet I still can't get it to work properly, and I actually suspect an error somewhere.
Create an aspx page with a textbox, a requiredfieldvalidator and a button. Set the validator to validate the textbox and set its text property to "*". Run the project. Now, I would assume that clicking the textbox and then tabbing to the button would show me the text-message from the validator (the red *), indicating that I haven't entered data where I need. Guess what - it doesn't show up...
However, clicking the field, entering data, tabbing away and then back, deleting the data again and then tabbing away again DOES show the red *. Because the validation of the textbox is handled from the onchange event. Try running this in the url field:
javascript:void(alert(document.all.TextBox1.onchange))
- it will give you
Message from webpage
---------------------------
function anonymous() {
ValidatorOnChange(event);
}
, whereas the
javascript:void(alert(document.all.TextBox1.onchange))
will return null.
Manually hooking the onblur event to the onchange event as so:
javascript:void(document.all.TextBox1.onblur=document.all.TextBox1.onchange)
will introduce somehow correct behaviour.
Now - is it me who has failed to understand the simples of all validation scenarios - or is the requiredfieldvalidator broken. I hope it is the first option, but what the h... am I missing?
Sample code:
<form id="form1" runat="server">
<div>
<asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox>
<asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="RequiredFieldValidator1" runat="server"
ErrorMessage="RequiredFieldValidator"
ControlToValidate="TextBox1"
Text="*"></asp:RequiredFieldValidator>
<asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button"/>
</div>
</form>
Do you know why it's important to make fast decisions? Because you give yourself more time to correct your mistakes, when you find out that you made the wrong one. Chris Meech on deciding whether to go to his daughters graduation or a Neil Young concert
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RequiredFieldValidator is a server control and is not evaluated until a postback occurs. The onblur event is handled on the client.
only two letters away from being an asset
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Greetings. I am developing an e-attendance application in asp.net and c# code behind. I want that staffs will take their attendance through fingerprint scanner when entering into their offices. Only managers and HR staffs will access the e-attendance for reporting purposes. Please advise me on how to proceed.
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MPORANYI J. Cheriaux wrote: Please advise me on how to proceed.
Outsource it. 
What have you done so far?
You need to come up with a design, and later if you find any problem than you can come up and discuss here.
Manas Bhardwaj
Please remember to rate helpful or unhelpful answers, it lets us and people reading the forums know if our answers are any good.
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