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I'm a little alarmed about your ICloneable.Clone implementation. It just calls Clone, which would seem to indicate an endless recursive call to itself. Does putting this. in front of it tell the compiler to call the other version?
So if I have,
MyClass m1 = new MyClass();
m1.Clone();
object o = m1.Clone();
MyClass m2 = (MyClass)m1.Clone();
What does each call to Clone actually end up calling?
Thanks,
Alvaro
Hey! It compiles! Ship it.
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First of all, I always type the implicit this. to help distinguish what's an instance member and what's a variable, just like I type the class name even for static members. It's basically just a way I manage my code. It makes absolutely NO difference when it compiles. The IL instructions are the same in either case.
Second, the seemingly self-recursive cloning: doesn't happen. Are you familiar with explicit interface implementations? Notice how I used the interface name in the last Clone method: object ICloneable.Clone()? That means that you must cast the object (or define the object reference as that interface) in order to call that particular method. In the explicit interface implementation, I called this.Clone(); which is the Clone method of my class. If I did ((ICloneable)this).Clone(), then that would definitely be a problem! That is not what I did, however. Trust me, it works.
Try throwing together a quick class that does this. Compile it and examine the IL (don't decompile - the IL is what you want to look at for this): it should show you what's being done.
You don't necessarily have to implement ICloneable as an explicit interface. I only did it because someone (might have been you - don't remember) complained that you have to cast the return value of Clone. By having another Clone method on your class that returns the proper type, you won't have to worry about it. Heck, you don't even need to implement ICloneable, but that may throw-off developers that are thinking that you implement ICloneable when, in fact, you don't (and they didn't read your documentation, which happens far too often than not).
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Thanks for the explanation. "Explicit interface implementation" is definitely cool. 
Heath Stewart wrote:
First of all, I always type the implicit this. to help distinguish what's an instance member and what's a variable, just like I type the class name even for static members.
Yes, I do the same for instance fields (well, in Java anyway; in .NET I use the m_ prefix for my fields.) But for instance methods I think this. is just overkill. Since global methods do not exist, it's clear that calling a method directly (without a something. in front it) means you're calling a member of the class.
Regards,
Alvaro
Hey! It compiles! Ship it.
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It's all a matter of personal preference. It certainly doesn't hurt anything (like I said, whether or not you use this, it compiles to the same IL instructions). I use it merely for code-readability...well, that I can type "this." faster than hitting Ctrl+J!  While I think too many "developers" (see my personal message board for comments!) rely merely on IntelliSense for their stumbling around...er, coding...it the auto-complete does come in handy for coding faster and avoiding fewer spelling errors.
Again, though, it's all a matter of personal preference. I know that this ( and Me, although I hate languages that "use me"  ) is implicit (heck, I've been doing this a very long time) but I just personally find it easier to see what's what as I'm flying through code.
And, yes, explicit interfaces are definitely cool - sometimes even necessary (ex: interface member collisions). They can also help hide a lot of the implementation details and force developers using your library to treat your object as a specific interface rather than just your Type (hopefully forcing good OO development).
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We have four web servers each hosting our web service. We use DNS round robin to load balance across these four servers. In order to use SSL we have a certificate called for example, www.loadbalanced.com which is installed on all four machines. Things work beautifully.
However,
We now have a new internal application that needs to consume the web service over SSL but requires access to specific web servers, i.e. using they internal hostname, Unfortunely the SSL connection no longer works, I'm assuming this is because the hostname does not match the SSL certificate name. Can this be programmatically overriden? Just like clicking the security warning dialog box that appears when browsing a secure site using IE with a different hostname.
Many thanks in advance.
ps Alternative ways of depoloying the application to achieve the same affect also welcomed
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There doesn't seem to be any way to override it without implementing your own SSL handshaking. The fact that IE (or any web browser for that matter) allows you to do that isn't actually an accepted process since it means the certificate is not verifiable and be using an ADK to encrypt for a different server.
Now, I'm not sure about your network topology, but in our setup, the web servers sit on a DMZ and have different names internally and externally. SSL could be forced on the site for external use but not for internal use (controlled by the firewall). Since this app is internal, why not just let it talk to the servers insecurely? Heck, you don't even need a DMZ to accomplish this, it's just easier to tell IIS how to differentiate traffic in case you've set IIS up to force SSL for connections. If you haven't done this for the whole site, you don't need to do anything really. Just segment the services so that the ones your clients use are forced to SSL and the ones you use aren't. If this is an externally deployed web site, you could do the same thing but you should take a look at WS-Security to secure your services. This could even be used for client access, but puts more burden on the developers as opposed to IIS, so it isn't always desired.
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We have a similar topology with a DMZ but unfortunetly require ALL traffic to be secured with SSL (or other encryption) because of the sensitive data.
How do we 'tell IIS to differentiate traffic', do you mean set different SSL requirements on different virtual directories? what if our internal & external clients are using the same pages?
I'll have a read through WS-Security but I was hoping that IIS and ASP.NET could already handle this
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There are several ways you can do this. Our DMZ, for example, is on the reserved subnet 172.16. We have two IP addresses bound to it for different apps. You could, instead, bind two different IPs to each machine and have the firewall redirect to the appropriate IP based on whether or not the traffic is internal or external. Then in IIS, make two different Web apps pointing to the same directory. For the external web app, require SSL. For the internal web app, leave it as optional.
If you did use WS-Security, you could get around this by checking the remote machine's IP and and skip encryption and verification for that traffic. Again, though, this will leave you with some of the work, although WS-Security does make it easier than just using the crypto classes directly.
You may find, too, that WS-Security gives you some additional features that would be nice in your app, such as policies for requiring certain things. It will require some changes in both the client and server, but depending on your business model it may be better in the end.
The big problem is that the .NET BCL doesn't really have a way for overriding the SSL handshaking that I've ever seen. If the SSL cert doesn't verify, an exception is thrown. There doesn't seem to be a way to change that. Technically speaking, that's the way it should be (you wouldn't want to trust a certificate from the server with an ADK since that opens you up for a man-in-the-middle attack), but I can understand that it isn't always desired. Perhaps you can make a comment to the .NET team for future enhancements on the .NET section of MSDN.
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Oh, one more thing. VeriSign does offer domain certificates. I don't know exactly how they work since it's been a long time since I've looked into what they offer, but it might be worth checking out. I don't know if the certificate contains special OIDs or something, or if you can just buy bulk certificates, but each server could, potentially, be able to use different keys based on the requested Host header.
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Hi,
If I want to serialize access to different resorces can I use a Named Mutex?
eg: I want to serialize access to a folder from different threads, can I do the following
Mutex oMutex = new Mutex(sFolderSpec);
oMutex.WaitOne()
oMutex.ReleaseMutex();
then in a different thread, have a different instance of the mutex, but with the same name
Mutex oMutex = new Mutex(sFolderSpec)
oMutex.WaitOne()
oMutex.ReleaseMutex();
I guess what I am asking is, Can I create the mutex in the function where I want the lock and dispose of it afterwards, and any other calls the same function by a different thread will lock until its released - or do I need an instance already created and accessible to each thread?
Thanks, James
James Simpson
Web Developer
imebgo@hotmail.com
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No, you merely need to use a named mutex in a different instance per thread, although sharing that object would work, too. The Mutex class is just a wrapper for a system object. A named mutex can even be used to synchronize different processes.
Also, you don't necessarily have to worry about disposing of it in any thread. The CLR will take care of cleaning up the memory - that's the whole point of managed code! This should aleviate some of the burden you may think you have of trying to wait until the last thread has released the mutex before destroying it - you won't have to.
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Actually, Mutex and friends all implement IDisposable - you _should_ worry about disposing them correctly. Sure the CLR will eventually finalize them for you and release the underlying unmanaged resource, but at some arbitrary time in the future, not when the last reference is released.
Unless your design calls for holding the object till process termination anyway, you should Dispose your IDisposables.
--
-Blake (com/bcdev/blake)
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Our web service occassionaly becomes unavailble to clients because the aspnet_wp.exe process is being restarted. We have some very strange event messages in the Application logs when this happens. Can anyone shed any light on these messages and what could be wrong?
Event Type: Error
Event Source: ASP.NET 1.1.4322.0
Event Category: None
Event ID: 1000
Date: 05/09/2003
Time: 10:40:48
User: N/A
Computer: SUENG01
Description:
aspnet_wp.exe (PID: 1632) stopped unexpectedly.
For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp.
Event Type: Error
Event Source: .NET Runtime
Event Category: None
Event ID: 0
Date: 05/09/2003
Time: 10:40:48
User: N/A
Computer: SUENG01
Description:
The description for Event ID ( 0 ) in Source ( .NET Runtime ) cannot be found. The local computer may not have the necessary registry information or message DLL files to display messages from a remote computer. You may be able to use the /AUXSOURCE= flag to retrieve this description; see Help and Support for details. The following information is part of the event: .NET Runtime version 1.1.4322.573- Setup Error: Failed to load resources from resource file
Please check your Setup.
Event Type: Error
Event Source: ASP.NET 1.1.4322.0
Event Category: None
Event ID: 1090
Date: 09/09/2003
Time: 00:34:23
User: N/A
Computer: SUENG03
Description:
Failed to execute request because QueryInterface for ASP.NET runtime failed. Error: 0x80004005 Unspecified error
For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp.
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Hi,
I need to add to my application to send "bulk EMail", just notify 200 clients about an event or... ( no spamming  , just real clients).
I know how to send an e-mail using Outlook, but no sure how to make it for groups of people, and via automation.
Thanks in advance, Greetings
Braulio
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I've got a question on the finer apsects of object creation. The books I've consulted are somewhat vague on this point.
When I write the following:
Forms myForm;
I create a Form variable on the stack which can point to an object on the heap. No object is created. What I'm not sure about is if this also reserves the space needed on the heap for later object creation or if that space on the heaop doesn't get reserved until I actually create the object with new?
Ergo, when do the CLR actually reserve some space on the heap for an object? Does this happen when I declare my reference, or won't it happen until I use the new operator?
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I don't know for certain but I would expect that the space is only allocated on the heap when the new operator is used...
...fascinating question... I just might look into it!!...
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
Shaun Austin: .NET Specialist. Spreading the word of .NET to the world... well the UK... well my tiny corner of it!!
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Yeah so would I. But the MCAD study guide from MS which I'm reading at the moment is extremely vague about this and uses the terms object and variable interchangeably which leads to confusion According to that book it seems space gets reserved when I declare the reference and that just seems odd to me....
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If it suggests such a thing ignore it, it is lying.
-Blake (shaking his head)
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Heap memory is allocated when the 'newobj' or 'newarr' IL instructions are executed. In C# this means in two places:
MyType foo; // no heap allocation
foo = new MyType(); // heap allocation here
int[] bar = {1,2,3}; // heap allocation here, even without a 'new'
--
-Blake (com/bcdev/blake)
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How do i convert an image to cursor in C# (runtime)? Any hints?
/gywox
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Hi !!
I've got a problem on an windows application in C#
My connection are made with the Windows Users parameters. And they give an number of rights over my I/O System.
But for a spécific function, i need to change this users to have rights on an other directory.
I know that there is a class Impersonation but it seems to work only over XP. And i need to make that on Win 2000 station.
Does anybody know, how to make that ???
Thanks.
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I can point you in the right direction as I have had to do something similar recently.
To impersonate you need to call LogonUser using PInvoke to get a user token, this call requires that the current user has the SE_TCB_NAME privilege (also called "Act as Part of Operating System") but you shouldn't just grant this to any account because it opens security holes. The way around it is to create a windows service to make the call. A windows service works because the LocalSystem and LocalService users automatically have SE_TCB_NAME. The reason it works on XP is that the requirement is no longer there....
Try looking up LogonUser in the platform SDK docs on MSDN...
HTH
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
Shaun Austin: .NET Specialist. Spreading the word of .NET to the world... well the UK... well my tiny corner of it!!
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Is it possible to show columns from to seperate dataTables in the same datagrid simoultanously?
maybee using dataView or something else?
(in windows forms)
Yes or no?
true or false?
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how can i convert the path(C:\..) to a binary and store it into the database
btw i am using ms sql database
thx!!
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Hiya...
Firstly, do you definitely need to save it to the DB as binary as presumably when you read it out you will want to convert it back to a string anyway..??
Secondly, assuming you still do then I tend to have an SqlHelper class with useful methods for dealing with data layer stuff... one of them is...
public static byte[] ObjectToByteArray(Object obj)
{
if(obj == null)
return null;
BinaryFormatter bf = new BinaryFormatter();
MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream();
bf.Serialize(ms, obj);
return ms.ToArray();
}
Which will allow you to convert any object to a byte array....
HTH...
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
Shaun Austin: .NET Specialist. Spreading the word of .NET to the world... well the UK... well my tiny corner of it!!
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